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Matthew 19: 10-12


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  • 2 Post By jhmomofmany
  • 1 Post By LJD3Tdance

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  #1  
April 4th, 2013, 10:57 PM
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The are people for "marriage equality attempting to use this verse as a way of saying Jesus "gave blessings" to gays from MY understanding of it that is NOT the case am I wrong?

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  #2  
April 5th, 2013, 02:39 PM
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I've read four different translations of these verses and can't imagine how they support gay marriage. Jesus is telling the disciples that remarriage after divorce is adultery. The disciples say if that is the case it would be better not to be married at all. Jesus says that celibacy is not for all, but only for those "eunichs" who are either incapable of marriage because they were born that way, because they were "made" that way (castrated?) or because they chose celibacy for the sake of the kingdom of heaven.

Has nothing in the world to do with gay relations.
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  #3  
April 5th, 2013, 06:46 PM
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Ok thank you

Quote:
Originally Posted by jhmomofmany View Post
I've read four different translations of these verses and can't imagine how they support gay marriage. Jesus is telling the disciples that remarriage after divorce is adultery. The disciples say if that is the case it would be better not to be married at all. Jesus says that celibacy is not for all, but only for those "eunichs" who are either incapable of marriage because they were born that way, because they were "made" that way (castrated?) or because they chose celibacy for the sake of the kingdom of heaven.

Has nothing in the world to do with gay relations.
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  #4  
April 7th, 2013, 10:31 PM
LJD3Tdance's Avatar Platinum Supermommy
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If it had anything to do with gay relations, to me, it would point to a life celibacy.
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